CHRIST, BECAUSE THE LORD HIMSELF MADE SUCH EXTRAORDINARY WORLD - HISTORICAL
CLAIMS ABOUT HIMSELF. HIS CLAIM'S SET HIM APART
FROM ALL OTHER RELIGIOUS LEADERS. OTHERS WERE SELF-EFFACIING
HE WAS SELF-ADVANCING. HE SAID THAT HE AND HIS FATHER WERE ONE
JOHN 10:30. BLESSED ARE THE EYES WHICH SEE THOSE THING'S WHICH YOU SEE. HE
CLAIMED, INSTANCE, TO FORGIVE SINS. READ MATT-16:16
SINCE WE CHRISTIAN ARE SO LOST MILLION'S OF US LIKE PETER JOHN JAMES MATTHEW
LUKE PAUL ARE MAD BY YOUR POINT OF VIEW. BIBLE TEACHES US BLESSED ARE YE WHEN
MEN SHALL REVILE YOU AND PERSECUTE YOU AND SHALL SAY ALL MANNER OF EVIL
AGAINST YOU FALSELY, FOR MY SAKE. SAID JESUS
FIRST JESUS DID COME TO SAVE WHICH WAS LOST NOT JUST THE JEW BUT THE WORLD.
HE
SAID THAT HE AND HIS FATHER ARE ONE. NOW TELL ME OF ANOTHER PROPHET. CAME TO
SAVE THE WORLD.
FIRST JESUS DID COME TO SAVE WHICH WAS LOST NOT JUST THE JEW BUT THE
WORLD. HE
SAID THAT HE AND HIS FATHER ARE ONE. NOW TELL ME OF ANOTHER PROPHET. CAME TO
SAVE THE WORLD.
Dear Friend
Apologies for the late reply, as something went haywire with the email service at my ISP.
I'll reply to your email in three parts. First in regards to the John 10:30 verse, Second in regards to whom Jesus said he was sent to, and finally my point of view.
First in regards to the John 10:30. Lets disect this verse,
To get at the context, we have to begin from verse 23 which reads:
23. "and Jesus was in the temple area walking in Solomon's Colonnade." (John 10:23).
John, or whoever he was, who wrote this story, does not tell us the reason for Jesus tempting the Devil by walking alone in the lion's den. For we do not expect the Jews to miss a golden opportunity to get even with Jesus. Perhaps, he was emboldened by the manner in which he had literally whipped the Jews single-handed in the Temple, and upset the tables of the money changers at the beginning of his ministry (John 2:15).
24. "The Jews gathered around him, saying, "How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Christ, tell us plainly."
(John 10:24).
They surrounded him. Brandishing their fingers in his face, they began accusing him and provoking him; saying that he had not put forth his claim plainly enough, clearly enough. That he was talking ambiguously. They were trying to work themselves into a frenzy to assault him. In fact, their real complaint was that they did not like his method of preaching, his invectives, the manner in which he condemned them for their formalism, their ceremonialism, their going for the letter of the law and forgetting the spirit. But Jesus could not afford to provoke them any further there were too many and they were itching for a fight.
Discretion is the better part of valor. In a conciliatory spirit, befitting the occasion:
25. "Jesus answered, I did tell you, but you do not believe. The miracles I do in my Father's name speak for me,"
26. "but you do not believe because you are not my sheep." (John 10:25-26).
Jesus rebuts the false charge of his enemies that he was ambiguous in his claims to being the Messiah that they were waiting for. He says that he did tell them clearly enough, yet they would not listen to him, but:
27. "My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me."
28. "I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one can snatch them out of my hand."
29. "My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father's hand.." (John 10:29).
How can anyone be so blind as not to see the exactness of the ending of the last two verses. But spiritual blinkers are more impervious than physical defects. He is telling the Jews and recording for posterity, the real unity or relationship between the Father and the son. The most crucial verse:
30. "I and the Father are one." (John 10:30).
One in what? In their Omniscience? In their Nature? In their Omnipotence? No! One in purpose! That once a believer has accepted faith, the Messenger sees to it that he remains in faith, and God Almighty also sees to it that he remains in faith. This is the purpose of the "Father" and the "son" and the "Holy Ghost" and of every man and every woman of faith. Let the same John explain his Gnostic mystic verbiage.
"That they all may be one as thou. Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us..."
"I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one..." (John 17:20-22)
If Jesus is "one" with God, and if that "oneness" makes him God, then the traitor Judas, and the doubting Thomas, and the satanic Peter, plus the other nine who deserted him when he was most in need are God(s), because the same "oneness" which he claimed with God in John 10:30, now he claims for all "who forsook him and fled" (Mark 14:50). All "ye of little faith" (Matthew 8:26). All "O faithless and perverse generation" (Luke 9:41). Where and when will the Christian blasphemy end? The expression "I and my Father are one," was very innocent, meaning nothing more than a common purpose with God. But the Jews were looking for trouble and any excuse will not do, therefore,
31. "Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him,"
32. "but Jesus said to them, I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?"
33. "The Jews answered him, saying : 'For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself a God." (John 10:31-33).
In verse 24 above the Jews falsely alleged that Jesus was talking ambiguously. When that charge was ably refuted, they then accused him of blasphemy which is like treason in the spiritual realm. So they say that Jesus is claiming to be God "I and the Father are one". The Christians agree with the Jews in this that Jesus did make such a claim; but differ in that it was not blasphemy because the Christians say that he was God and was entitled to own up to his Divinity.
The Christians and the Jews are both agreed that the utterance is serious. To one as an excuse for good "redemption", and to the other as an excuse for good "riddance". Between the two, let the poor Jesus die. But Jesus refuses to co-operate in this game, so:
34. "Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, `I have said you are gods'?"
35. "If he called them `gods,' to whom the word of God came --and the Scripture cannot be broken--,"
36. "what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, `I am God's Son'?" (John 10:34-36).
Why "Your Law"?
He is a bit sarcastic in verse 34, but in any event, why does he say: "Your Law"? Is it not also his Law? Didn't he say: "Think not that I am come to destroy the Law of the prophets: I am come not to destroy, but to fulfill (the Law). For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass away, one Jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the Law, till all be fulfilled." (Matthew 5:1718).
"You are Gods"
"You are gods:" He is obviously quoting from the 82nd Psalm , verse 6, "I have said, ye are gods: and all of you are the children of the most High."
Jesus, continues: "If he (i.e. God Almighty) called them gods, unto whom the word of God came (meaning that the prophets of God were called 'gods') and the scripture cannot be broken..." (John 10:35), in other words he is saying: "you can't contradict me!" Jesus knows his Scripture; he speaks with authority; and he reasons with his enemies that: "If good men, holy men, prophets of God are being addressed as 'gods' in our Books of Authority, with which you find no fault, then why do you take exception to me? When the only claim I make for myself is far inferior in our language, viz. 'A son of God' as against others being called 'gods' by God Himself. Even if I (Jesus) described myself as 'god' in our language, according to Hebrew usage, you could find no fault with me." This is the plain reading of Christian Scripture. I am giving no interpretations of my own or some esoteric meaning to words!
About Jesus coming to save everyone, he himself makes it clear that he only came for the
Jews...
These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them saying GO NOT into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans ENTER YE NOT.
But go ye rather unto the lost sheep of THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (to the Jews only).
MATTHEW 10:5-6
"But he (Jesus) answered and said, I am NOT SENT but unto the lost sheep of the HOUSE OF ISRAEL
(the Jews only). "Then came she (the Canaanite woman) and worshipped him, saying Lord, help me
(to cure my daughter). "But he answered and said, it is not meet to take the children's bread and CAST IT TO DOGS
(the non-Jews). "
MATTHEW 15:24-26
The statement that Jesus made,
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the father, and of the son, and of the Holy Ghost.
Now if Jesus did utter these statements, then we would expect the disciples to heed his words and preach and convert the gentiles. But way long after the time of Jesus (definitely after he made these alleged statements) we find the disciples and followers still preaching to the Jews only.
Now they which were scattered abroad upon the persecution that arose about Stephen travelled as far as Phenice, and Cyprus, and Antioch, preaching the word to none but unto the Jews only.
ACTS 11:19
Even the disciple James still draws a clear line in who he is preaching and addressing. The beginning of his only epistle opens up with this verse
James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
James 1:1
So who would set the precedent for the preaching the Gospel to the Gentiles.
And when they opposed themselves, and blasphemed, he shook his raiment, and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads. I'am clean ; from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles
ACTS 18:6
This is the renegade, self-appointed disciple of Christ speaking, Paul of Tarsus. Henceforth means from now on, from this point onwards. That I (Paul) will preach the gospel to the gentiles, not from the point when Jesus said preach the gospel in all the world for a witness unto all nations. Why is this so, from the looks of it, because Paul had a hard time converting the Jews to accept Jesus as the Messiah, he decided to look towards another source of potential converts. Hence he turned towards the Gentiles. One wonders if he was successful with the Jews (his own people) would he have ever bothered preaching to the Gentiles.
Please, there is nothing to be mad about my point of view. I in no way defame or degrade Jesus
Christ (Peace be upon him), nor would I post material by anyone that does so. I merely question Christian interpretation of him, after all we consider him to be a Muslim Prophet. We believe him to be the
Messiah,
a Messenger from God
A Prophet
A Word of God and
Guided by the Holy Spirit
We believe in his mighty miracles. We respect him, admire him, but we do not worship him. Just like we
DON'T worship Muahmmed (PBUH). Only Allah (Glory be to him), or the Loving Father in Heaven as you might call him.
Please read the books at my site with an open mind, and you'll see how you'll grasp a fresher perspective that you have not imageined before.
Regards
Malik Ali